Cisco 642-874 Exam Test Questions, Most Popular Cisco 642-874 Exam Guide Covers All Key Points

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Q81
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)

A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.
Answer: B,E

Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q82
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)

A. activity audit
B. administration
C. policy establishment
D. technology implementation “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34
Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Q83
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be less than___%

A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 2.5
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q84
What are two design guidelines for VoIP networks? (Choose two.)

A. Delay should be no more than 10 ms.
B. Loss should be no more than 1 percent.
C. Jitter should be less then 40 ms.
D. Managed bandwidth is strongly recommended for voice control traffic.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q85 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Q86 Users of a site-to-site VPN are reporting performance problems. The VPN connection employs IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What would be two methods to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
C. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
D. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Q87
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and
NetFlow?

A. NBAR examines data in Layers 1 and 4.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
Answer: B
Explanation: Q88 ActualTests.com Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Q89 It’s a configuration that experts are calling a “firewall sandwich,” with the second firewall providing a second level of load balancing after traffic down. What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. single layer of firewalling
B. multiple layers of firewalling
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q90
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the
best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?

A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode
Answer: C
Explanation: Q91 When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled? ActualTests.com
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB
Answer: D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Q92 Which three objectives would be met by designing Layer 3 switching in the Campus Backbone of a medium size installation? (Choose three.)
A. scale to a large size
B. increase router peering
C. provide a flexible topology with no spanning tree loops
D. control broadcasts in the backbone
Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Q93
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which is not major scaling, sizing, and performance consideration
for an IPsec design?

A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
Answer: D
Explanation: Q94 ActualTests.com
Which enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept user requests?
A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct
Answer: B
Explanation: In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 requests, as in transparent caching. Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12 Q95 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which signal and noise values will result in the best phone communication with an access point?
A. signal strength 5dBm
B. signal strength 6dBm
C. noise level 4dBm
D. noise level 5dBm
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Q96
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)

A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface ActualTests.com
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q97
Which remote access VPN addressing technique supports a static IP address to support a specific
application?

A. Use a static ip addresses based on incoming user policies.
B. Use DHCP to assign addresses based on incoming user policies.
C. Deploy a clientless model to assign a unique address to the user. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39
D. Deploy RADIUS or LDAP to assign the address to the user.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q98
Which three are used in configuring Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three.)

A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route pattern
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Q99
Which two of these are characteristics of an IPS device? (Choose two.)

A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IPS interface and exits on another
Answer: B,D
ActualTests.com Explanation: Q100 Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi- vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40
Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Q101
One of your customer has six sites, three of which process a large amount of traffic among them. He plans
to grow the number of sites in the future. Which is the most appropriate design topology?

A. full mesh
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh
D. hub and spoke
Answer: C
Explanation: Q102 ABC Company has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network. LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application. What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

ActualTests.com
Explanation:
Q103
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com.Your customer has eight sites and will add in the future.

Branch site to branch site traffic is approaching 30 percent. The customer’s goals are to make it easier to
add branch sites in the future and to reduce traffic through the hub. Which VPN topology should you
recommend?

A. Easy VPN
B. IPsec GRE tunneling “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
Answer: D
Explanation: Q104 The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. intrusion protection
B. identity
C. secure connectivity
D. security management
Answer: A,B

Explanation: The right answer should be identity and intrusion protection (A,B) because security
management is covered by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.
Q105
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation?
ActualTests.com
(Choose two.)

A. source port
B. output interface
C. next-hop IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination IP address
F. next-hop MAC address
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 42 Q106 Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q107
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com. Please point out two statements correctly describe an IPS
device?

A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge.
B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router.
C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected.
D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic is blocked.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q108 Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexe monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.
These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. fixed broadcast
B. open looped “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43
C. quality equalization
D. VoD delivery
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q109
Please match the Cisco NAC appliance component to its description.

(1)Cisco NAS

(2)Cisco NAA

(3)Rule-set Lpdates
(4)Cisco NAM

(a)
a centralized management point

(b)
an in-band cr out-of-band device for network access control

(c)
a Windows-based client which allows network access based on the tasks running

(d)
a status crecker for operating systems,antivirus,antispyware,etc

A.
(a)-(4);(b)-(1);(c)-(2);(d)-(3)

B.
(a)-(3);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(1)

C.
(a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(1);(d)-(2) ActualTests.com

D.
(a)-(2);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(1)
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q110
What is the first step that you would use Cisco Product Advisor for when selecting a router for an Edge
solution?

A. determine types of protocols to be supported
B. determine the environment in which the router will be used “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 44
C. select the number of WAN ports required
D. select the number of LAN ports required
Answer: B Explanation: Q111 DRAG DROP

Answer:

ActualTests.com Q112 What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. includes all modules needed to meet any network design
B. defines flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements
C. clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is
D. requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model
Answer: C
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Q113 DRAG DROP Answer:
ActualTests.com Q114 Which routing protocol best fits these requirements?
-Supported by multiple router vendors
-Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources
-Uses a simple routing metric

Supports manual or automatic route summarization “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46

A.
EIGRP

B.
OSPF

C.
IS-IS

D.
RIPv2 Answer: D
Explanation:
Q115
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q116 Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 3600 series
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 7500 series
D. 12000 series
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47 Q117 Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q118
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?

A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q119
Refer to the exhibit. When deploying an MSFC and an FWSM, which statement is correct?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48
A. Proper placement depends on the VLAN assignment.
B. Place it outside the firewall.
C. Place it inside the firewall to make design and management easier.
D. Place it inside the firewall with multiple context modes connecting to all configured contexts.
Answer: A
Explanation: ActualTests.com Q120 Sun Stable is a global insurance company with headquarters located in Houston, Texas. The campus there is made up of a number of office buildings located within the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building 331B was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Sun Stable has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Sun Stable. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Which IP telephony deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q121
Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet when client traffic is being bridged through
LAN interfaces on two WLCs?

A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Layer 4 intercontroller roaming
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q122
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

ActualTests.com

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q123
Which three of these are major scaling, sizing, and performance considerations for an IPsec design?
(Choose three.)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50

A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
E. whether packets are encrypted using 3DES or AES
F. number of routes in the routing table at the remote site
Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Q124
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)

A. common network infrastructure
B. abstracted integration
C. network solutions
D. intelligent network services
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Q125
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the
same fabric?

A. ISL
B. IVR ActualTests.com
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q126
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q127
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a
maximum of how many phones per access point?

A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Answer: D
Explanation: The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO Q128 A company is using a multi-site centralized call processing model. Which feature ensures that the remote site IP phones will still have limited functionality given a WAN outage?
ActualTests.com
A. Call Admission Control
B. TAPI
C. MGCP
D. SRST
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q129
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. A customer calls to ask the best
signal level and noise level for cell phone. How to respond?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52
A. -40dBm signal and -90dBm noise
B. -50dBm signal and -90dBm noise
C. -30dBm signal and -90dBm noise
D. -20dBm signal and -90dBm noise
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q130
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. Which of the following
descriptions is correct about the characteristic of SLB one arm mode?

A. This out-of-band approach supports scaling
B. SLB is not inline.
C. Mode is not as common as bridge or routed mode.
D. Return traffic requires PBR, server default gateway pointing to SLB, or client source NAT.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q131
Which design topology incurs a performance penalty since there are two encryption-decryption cycles
between any two remote sites?

A. peer-to-peer
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh ActualTests.com
D. hub and spoke
E. full mesh
Answer: D
Explanation: Q132 Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q133
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?

A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic.
B. An IPS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
C. An IDS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
D. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q134
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three.)

A. reliability
B. scalability
C. redundancy
D. manageability ActualTests.com
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Q135 As an experienced technician, you are responsible for infrastructure design and global configuration changes. You are asked to deploy a Voice over Wireless LAN for your company. If the cells have the same channel, the separation between them should be:
A. 19dbm
B. 10dbm
C. 67dbm
D. 86dbm
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q136
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help
eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.)

A. rate limit voice traffic
B. configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs
D. classify and mark traffic close to the source
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q137 Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Platinum
B. WMM must be enabled
C. QoS must be set to Gold
D. TSPEC must be disabled
E. Cisco Compatible Extensions must be disabled
Answer: A,B
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Explanation: Q138 Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control within existing H.323 environments?
A. single site with centralized call processing
B. single site with distributed call processing
C. multisite with centralized call processing
D. multisite with distributed call processing
Answer: D
Explanation: Q139 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A. Layer 2 mode
B. Layer 2 Edge mode
C. Layer 3 mode
D. Layer 3 In-Band mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q140 The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by- hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. CiscoView
C. Device Fault Manager
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q141
A Fibre Channel fabric (or Fibre Channel switched fabric, FC-SW) is a switched fabric of Fibre Channel
devices enabled by a Fibre Channel switch. Fabrics are normally subdivided by Fibre Channel zoning.

Each fabric has a name server and provides other services. Higher redundancy over FC-AL, P2P.Which
path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. FSPF
D. VSANs
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q142
Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two.)

A. bandwidth efficiency
B. cell-switching
C. congestion notification
D. heterogeneous network ActualTests.com
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q143
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?

A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 57
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re- learning is needed.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q144
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate? (Choose one.)

A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Answer: A
Explanation: Q145 VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging, is a method developed by Cisco to help identify packets travelling through trunk links. When an Ethernet frame traverses a trunk link, a special VLAN tag is added to the frame and sent across the trunk link .How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. provide service internetworking
B. support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. indicate destination as a connection identifier
D. map to the DLCI in service internetworking ActualTests.com
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q146
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when
configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?

A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 58
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: Q147 Fibre Channel, or FC, is a gigabit-speed network technology primarily used for storage networking. Fibre Channel is standardized in the T11 Technical Committee of the InterNational Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS), an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Caccredited standards committee.
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Q148
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two.)

A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees. ActualTests.com
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
Answer: B,D
Explanation: Q149 The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer SAN Switches can help lower the total cost of ownership of the most demanding storage environments. By combining a robust and flexible hardware architecture with multiple layers of network and storage-management intelligence, the Cisco MDS
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 59 9000 Series helps you build highly available, scalable storage networks with advanced security and unified management.
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. VLAN Trunk
C. VoQ
D. Enhanced ISL
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q150
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?

A. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
B. jitter of 30 ms or less
C. packet loss of 2 percent or less
D. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
Answer: C
Explanation: Q151 DRAG DROP

ActualTests.com Answer: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 60

Q152 To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. prioritization
B. classification
C. fragmentation
D. traffic shaping
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q153
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which layer NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and
bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?

A. Layer 2 ActualTests.com
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. out-of-band
Answer: D
Explanation: Q154 A security analysis at The Potomac Canal Company recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 61 balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost.
You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
B. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
C. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
D. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Q155
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?

A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Answer: A
Explanation: Q156 Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming ActualTests.com content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q157
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62

A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q158
What is high availability?

A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q159
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)

A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers. ActualTests.com
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Q160
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption
of service when making topology changes?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63

A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Answer: A
Explanation: Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the device. Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users. Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17 Q161 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these are important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Q162 ActualTests.com Acme Costume Company is connecting its manufacturing facilties to its stores with a small point- to-multipoint Frame Relay IP WAN. Little growth is expected in the network infrastructure.Up to this point the company has been using a dial-on-demand network. Dropping WAN costs, however, have led them to consider using a high-speed WAN solution to improve access. Which two routing protocols could you deploy to support the new larger network while keeping costs down? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 64
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Q163
The VPN termination function provides the ability to connect two networks together securely over the
internet. Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?

A. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. termination devices need not routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q164
When dealing with transparent caching, where should the Content Engines be placed?

A. close to the servers
B. close to the end users
C. at the Internet edge
D. in front of web server farms
Answer: B

Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q165
Which of these statements is true of routing protocols in a hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN topology?

A. EIGRP can summarize per interface.
B. OSPF router databases remain independent.
C. When they are configured with stubs, EIGRP regularly floods the topology.
D. OSPF topology decisions are made independent of hierarchy or area.
Answer: A

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65
Explanation:
Q166
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three.)

A. dial plans
B. dialed numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Q167
Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode based on the following information?
ActualTests.com
A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Q168 Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q169
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these practices should you follow when
designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?

A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q170
ActualTests.com
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two.)

A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 67 Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other.
Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirements of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
Note: The following URL from Cisco’s website explains this feature: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122cgcr/fqos_c/fqcprt6/qcflfi.htm #wp1000907
“(Optional) Configures a maximum fragment delay. If, for example, you want a voice stream to have a
maximum bound on delay of 20 milliseconds (ms) and you specify 20 ms using this command, MLP will choose a fragment size based on the configured value.” Packets are fragmented when they exceed the configured maximum delay. Q171 ____ dBm is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network.
A. 4 ActualTests.com
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q172
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68

A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface
Answer: A,C

Explanation: Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No congestion avoidance,
Duplicates and Out-of order delivery.
Q173
The Cisco IOS SLB feature is a Cisco IOS-based solution that provides server load balancing. This feature
allows you to define a virtual server that represents a cluster of real servers, known as a server farm.

When a client initiates a connection to the virtual server, the IOS SLB load balances the connection to a
chosen real server, depending on the configured load balance algorithm or predictor.

Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)

A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q174 With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

Explanation:
The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69
processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not.
Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of

users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43 Q175 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. You are designing an e-Commerce module, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q176
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?

A. host security
B. perimeter security
C. security monitoring
D. policy management ActualTests.com
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q177
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the
best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?

A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q178
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. What is the term for a logical SAN which provides
isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?

A. InterSwitch Link
B. Virtua LAN
C. Virtual Output Queuing
D. virtual storage area network
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q179
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q180 A virtual storage area network (VSAN) is a collection of ports from a set of connected Fibre Channel switches, that form a virtual fabric. Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Answer: A

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 71
Explanation:
Q181
What four functions does Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) incorporate? (Choose four.)

A. load balancing
B. scalability
C. remote management
D. fault tolerance
E. service assurance
Answer: A,B,D,E

Explanation:
Q182
Which of the following is the primary consideration to scale VPNs?

A. packets per second
B. number of remote sites
C. throughput bandwidth
D. number of tunnels
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q183 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 72
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q184
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?

A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
Answer: A
Explanation: Q185 In which tunnel-less VPN topology do group members register with a key server in order to receive the security association necessary to communicate with the group?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
Answer: E
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q186 Which two of these are advantages of placing the VPN device in the DMZ on the firewall? (Choose two.)
A. fewer devices to manage
B. moderate-to-high scalability
C. stateful inspection of decrypted VPN traffic
D. increased bandwidth with additional interfaces
E. decreased complexity as traffic is filtered from the firewall
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 73 Q187 Under which two circumstances should Spanning Tree Protocol be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. when a VLAN spans access layer switches
D. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology
E. because of the risk of lost connectivity without Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Q188
Which two of these are advantages of placing the VPN device parallel to the firewall? (Choose two.)

A. high scalability
B. the design supports a layered security model
C. firewall addressing does not need to change
D. IPsec decrypted traffic is inspected by the firewall
E. there is a centralized point for logging and content inspection
Answer: A,C
Explanation: ActualTests.com Q189 What will an Easy VPN hardware client require in order to insert its protected network address when it connects using network extension mode?
A. RADIUS or LDAP
B. an internal router running EIGRP
C. Reverse Route Injection and OSPF or RIPv2
D. the VPN appliance to be deployed in line with the firewall
Answer: C
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74
Explanation:
Q190
Which two practices will avoid Cisco Express Forwarding polarization?(Choose two.)
A. The core layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
B. The core layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
C. The distribution layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
D. The distribution layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
E. The core layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input to the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm. ActualTests.com
F. The distribution layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input into the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm.
Answer: A,F

Explanation:
Q191
When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be
considered in the network design?

A. RX-queue deferred “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75
B. TX-queue deferred
C. RX-queue saturation
D. TX-queue saturation
E. RX-queue starvation
F. TX-queue starvation
Answer: F

Explanation:
Q192
What is the recommended practice when considering VPN termination and firewall placement?

A. have the firewall and VPN appliance deployed in parallel
B. place the VPN in line with the firewall, with the VPN terminating inside the firewall
C. place the public side of the VPN termination device in the DMZ behind a firewall
D. place the VPN in line with the firewall, with the VPN terminating outside the firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q193
Which of these statements is correct regarding SSO and Cisco NSF?

A. Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
B. Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
C. Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices. ActualTests.com
D. Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second.
E. NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer.
Answer: E

Explanation:
Q194
Which of these is a correct description of SSO?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 76

A. It will only become active after a software failure.
B. It will only become active after a hardware failure.
C. It requires that Cisco NSF be enabled in order to work successfully.
D. It synchronizes the MAC, FIB, and adjacency tables between Active and Standby Route Processors.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q195
Which of these recommended designs provides the highest availability?

A. map the Layer 2 VLAN number to the Layer 3 subnet
B. control route propagation to edge switches using distribute lists
C. use a Layer 2 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP
D. use a Layer 3 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP
E. use equal-cost Layer 3 load balancing on all links to limit the scope of queries in EIGRP
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q196
An organization hires a contractor who only needs access to email and a group calendar. They do not
need administrator access to the computer. Which VPN model is the most appropriate?

A. Thin Model
B. Thick Client ActualTests.com
C. Port Forwarding
D. Clientless Access
E. Layer 3 Network Access
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q197
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture
assessment?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 77

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q198
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)

A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.
Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Q199
Which of these is a benefit of using Network Admission Control instead of Cisco Identity Based Networking
Services?

ActualTests.com

A. NAC can authenticate using 802.1X and IBNS cannot
B. NAC can ensure only compliant machines connect and IBNS cannot
C. NAC can ensure access to the correct network resources and IBNS cannot
D. NAC can manage user mobility and reduce overhead costs and IBNS cannot
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q200
Which three of these Metro Ethernet services map to E-Line services that are defined by the MEF?
(Choose three.)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78

A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Wire Service
C. Ethernet Relay Service
D. Ethernet Multipoint Service
E. Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service
Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

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