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QUESTION 8
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the device. Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users. Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17
QUESTION 9
Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival
A. echo
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. digitized sampling
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. IP telephony
B. security
C. IP multicasting
D. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Cisco IDS sensors form the eyes and ears of your Cisco network intrusion detection system. Placing sensors correctly throughout your network is crucial to successfully implementing your Cisco intrusion detection system .Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. passively listens to network traffic
D. has a promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to support the server farm module? (Choose three.)
A. Implement highly redundant switching and links with no single points or paths of failure.
B. Implement server load balancing.
C. Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection.
D. Implement intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. One of the trainees is asking your advice on VPN Termination Device and Firewall Placement. Which of the following approaches will you recommend?
A. inline with a firewall
B. in a DMZ outside the firewall
C. parallel with a firewall
D. in a DMZ behind the firewall
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by- hop (router-to router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. CiscoView
C. Device Fault Manager
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
Cisco IDS sensors form the eyes and ears of your Cisco network intrusion detection system. Placing sensors correctly throughout your network is crucial to successfully implementing your Cisco intrusion detection system . Where can an IPS sensor be placed in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
A. core layer
B. bridging two VLANs on one switch
C. between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
D. between two Layer 2 devices without trunking
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
Which protocol would provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
The Cisco network-based virtual firewall service solution helps service providers to deliver cost- effective, scalable, integrated security services for enterprise customers using Cisco platforms .What is a virtual firewall?
A. another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
B. another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
C. a separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
D. a firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
What is the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration?
A. 2500
B. 3000
C. 5000
D. 6500
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
In a VoWLAN deployment, It is recommended ___ dBm separation between cells with the same channel.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 10
D. 19
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Acme Nutrition manufactures a wide variety of vitamin supplements. It has a single manufacturing facility with 3 regional warehouses and 16 district sales offices. Currently the manufacturing facility requires 210 IP addresses; each warehouse requires 51 IP addresses; each district sales office requires 11 IP addresses; and the IP WAN requires 38 IP addresses. if Acme Nutrition plans for 20 percent growth in
facilities, how many Class C subnets will the district sales offices require?
A. 19 (3 from the warehouse range and 16 from a separate Class C address)
B. 19 (3 from the warehouse block, 15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
C. 20 (4 from the warehouse range,15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
D. 16 (3 from the warehouse range and 13 from a separate Class C address)
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider?
A. RFP
B. RFC
C. SLC/SLA
D. SOW
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
Which site-to-site VPN solution allows Cisco routers, PIX Firewalls, and Cisco hardware clients to act as remote VPN clients in order to receive predefined security policies and configuration parameters from the VPN headend at the central site?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 24
Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 25
Please match the Cisco STP enahancement term to its definition.(Not all options will be used.)
(1)
BPDU guard

(2)
PortFast

(3)
BackboneFast

(4)
UplinkFast

(5)
Root guard

(a)
shuts down a port that receives a BPDU when enabled

(b)
cuts convergence time by mas-age for indirect failure

(c)
prevents the aliernate or root port from being designated in absence of BPDUs

(d)
causes Layer 2 LAN interface access port to immediately enter the forwarding state

(f)
helps prevent bridging loops due to jni-directional link failures on point-to-point links

A.
(a)-(1);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(3)

B.
(a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(2);(d)-(5);(e)-(1)

C.
(a)-(3);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(1)

D.
(a)-(1);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(5);(e)-(2)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco offers a variety of enhancements to STP:

1.
PortFast: Allows an access port to bypass STPs listening and learning phases so no need to wait 50 seconds to forward data.

2.
UplinkFast: Reduces STP convergence from 50 seconds to approximately 3 to 5 seconds so no need to wait 50 seconds to forward data through alternate link

3.
BackboneFast: Reduces STP convergence time for an indirect link failure.

4.
LoopGuard: Helps prevent loops that could occur because of a unidirectional link failure, a software failure, or a bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) loss due to congestion

5.
RootGuard: Prevents an inappropriate switch from being elected as a root bridge

6.
BPDUGuard: Causes a port configured for PortFast to go into the errordisable state if a BPDU is received on the port
QUESTION 26
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate? (Choose one.)
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)
A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 28
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)
A. activity audit
B. administration
C. policy establishment
D. technology implementation
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be less than___%
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 2.5
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
What are two design guidelines for VoIP networks? (Choose two.)
A. Delay should be no more than 10 ms.
B. Loss should be no more than 1 percent.
C. Jitter should be less then 40 ms.
D. Managed bandwidth is strongly recommended for voice control traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
Users of a site-to-site VPN are reporting performance problems. The VPN connection employs IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What would be two methods to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
C. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
D. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NBAR examines data in Layers 1 and 4.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 35
It’s a configuration that experts are calling a “firewall sandwich,” with the second firewall providing a second level of load balancing after traffic down. What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. single layer of firewalling
B. multiple layers of firewalling
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled?
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
Which three objectives would be met by designing Layer 3 switching in the Campus Backbone of a medium size installation? (Choose three.)
A. scale to a large size
B. increase router peering
C. provide a flexible topology with no spanning tree loops
D. control broadcasts in the backbone
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which is not major scaling, sizing, and performance consideration for an IPsec design?
A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
Which enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept user requests?
A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache
Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user requests, as in transparent caching.
Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may
have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12

QUESTION 41
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which signal and noise values will result in the best phone communication with an access point?
A. signal strength 5dBm
B. signal strength 6dBm
C. noise level 4dBm
D. noise level 5dBm
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)
A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 43
Which remote access VPN addressing technique supports a static IP address to support a specific application?
A. Use a static ip addresses based on incoming user policies.
B. Use DHCP to assign addresses based on incoming user policies.
C. Deploy a clientless model to assign a unique address to the user.
D. Deploy RADIUS or LDAP to assign the address to the user.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 44
Which three are used in configuring Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three.)
A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route pattern
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
Which two of these are characteristics of an IPS device? (Choose two.)
A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IPS interface and exits on another
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi- vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
One of your customer has six sites, three of which process a large amount of traffic among them. He plans to grow the number of sites in the future. Which is the most appropriate design topology?
A. full mesh
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh
D. hub and spoke
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 48
ABC Company has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network. LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application. What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 49
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com.Your customer has eight sites and will add in the future.Branch site to branch site traffic is approaching 30 percent. The customer’s goals are to make it easier to add branch sites in the future and to reduce traffic through the hub. Which VPN topology should you recommend?
A. Easy VPN
B. IPsec GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. intrusion protection
B. identity
C. secure connectivity
D. security management
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The right answer should be identity and intrusion protection (A,B) because security management is covered by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.

Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. source port
B. output interface
C. next-hop IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination IP address
F. next-hop MAC address
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com. Please point out two statements correctly describe an IPS device?
A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge.
B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router.
C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected.
D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic is blocked.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexe monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.
These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. fixed broadcast
B. open looped
C. quality equalization
D. VoD delivery
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Please match the Cisco NAC appliance component to its description.
(1)Cisco NAS (2)Cisco NAA
(3)Rule-set Lpdates (4)Cisco NAM
(a)
a centralized management point

(b)
an in-band cr out-of-band device for network access control

(c)
a Windows-based client which allows network access based on the tasks running

(d)
a status crecker for operating systems,antivirus,antispyware,etc

A.
(a)-(4);(b)-(1);(c)-(2);(d)-(3)

B.
(a)-(3);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(1)

C.
(a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(1);(d)-(2)

D.
(a)-(2);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(1)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
What is the first step that you would use Cisco Product Advisor for when selecting a router for an Edge solution?
A. determine types of protocols to be supported
B. determine the environment in which the router will be used
C. select the number of WAN ports required
D. select the number of LAN ports required
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. includes all modules needed to meet any network design
B. defines flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements
C. clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is
D. requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Which routing protocol best fits these requirements?
-Supported by multiple router vendors
-Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources
-Uses a simple routing metric

Supports manual or automatic route summarization

A.
EIGRP

B.
OSPF

C.
IS-IS

D.
RIPv2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 3600 series
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 7500 series
D. 12000 series
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?
A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When deploying an MSFC and an FWSM, which statement is correct?

A. Proper placement depends on the VLAN assignment.
B. Place it outside the firewall.
C. Place it inside the firewall to make design and management easier.
D. Place it inside the firewall with multiple context modes connecting to all configured contexts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Sun Stable is a global insurance company with headquarters located in Houston, Texas. The campus there is made up of a number of office buildings located within the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building,
Building 331B was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Sun Stable has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Sun Stable. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets.
Which IP telephony deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet when client traffic is being bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs?
A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Layer 4 intercontroller roaming
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
Which three of these are major scaling, sizing, and performance considerations for an IPsec design? (Choose three.)
A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
E. whether packets are encrypted using 3DES or AES
F. number of routes in the routing table at the remote site
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. common network infrastructure
B. abstracted integration
C. network solutions
D. intelligent network services
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7 E. 19
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO

QUESTION 22
A company is using a multi-site centralized call processing model. Which feature ensures that the remote site IP phones will still have limited functionality given a WAN outage?
A. Call Admission Control
B. TAPI
C. MGCP
D. SRST
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. A customer calls to ask the best signal level and noise level for cell phone. How to respond?
A. -40dBm signal and -90dBm noise
B. -50dBm signal and -90dBm noise
C. -30dBm signal and -90dBm noise
D. -20dBm signal and -90dBm noise
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 24
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. Which of the following descriptions is correct about the characteristic of SLB one arm mode?
A. This out-of-band approach supports scaling
B. SLB is not inline.
C. Mode is not as common as bridge or routed mode.
D. Return traffic requires PBR, server default gateway pointing to SLB, or client source NAT.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 25
Which design topology incurs a performance penalty since there are two encryption-decryption cycles between any two remote sites?
A. peer-to-peer
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh
D. hub and spoke
E. full mesh

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 26
Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic.
B. An IPS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
C. An IDS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
D. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 28
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three.)
A. reliability
B. scalability
C. redundancy
D. manageability
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6.
QUESTION 29
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for infrastructure design and global configuration changes. You are asked to deploy a Voice over Wireless LAN for your company. If the cells have the same channel, the separation between them should be:
A. 19dbm
B. 10dbm
C. 67dbm
D. 86dbm
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.)
A. rate limit voice traffic
B. configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs
D. classify and mark traffic close to the source
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Platinum
B. WMM must be enabled
C. QoS must be set to Gold
D. TSPEC must be disabled
E. Cisco Compatible Extensions must be disabled
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control within existing H.323 environments?
A. single site with centralized call processing
B. single site with distributed call processing
C. multisite with centralized call processing
D. multisite with distributed call processing
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A. Layer 2 mode
B. Layer 2 Edge mode
C. Layer 3 mode
D. Layer 3 In-Band mode
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by- hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. CiscoView
C. Device Fault Manager
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 35
A Fibre Channel fabric (or Fibre Channel switched fabric, FC-SW) is a switched fabric of Fibre Channel devices enabled by a Fibre Channel switch. Fabrics are normally subdivided by Fibre Channel zoning.
Each fabric has a name server and provides other services. Higher redundancy over FC-AL, P2P.Which path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. FSPF
D. VSANs
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two.)
A. bandwidth efficiency
B. cell-switching
C. congestion notification
D. heterogeneous network
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate? (Choose one.)
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging, is a method developed by Cisco to help identify packets travelling through trunk links. When an Ethernet frame traverses a trunk link, a special VLAN tag is added to the frame and sent across the trunk link .How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. provide service internetworking
B. support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. indicate destination as a connection identifier
D. map to the DLCI in service internetworking
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Fibre Channel, or FC, is a gigabit-speed network technology primarily used for storage networking. Fibre Channel is standardized in the T11 Technical Committee of the InterNational Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS), an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Caccredited standards committee.
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees.
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 43
The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer SAN Switches can help lower the total cost of ownership of the most demanding storage environments. By combining a robust and flexible hardware architecture with multiple layers of network and storage-management intelligence, the Cisco MDS 9000 Series helps you build highly available, scalable storage networks with advanced security and unified management.
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. VLAN Trunk
C. VoQ
D. Enhanced ISL
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 44
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
B. jitter of 30 ms or less
C. packet loss of 2 percent or less
D. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. prioritization
B. classification
C. fragmentation
D. traffic shaping
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which layer NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. out-of-band
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
A security analysis at The Potomac Canal Company recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost.
You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
B. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
C. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
D. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 48
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 49
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam F
QUESTION 1
What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the device. Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users. Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17
QUESTION 4
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these are important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Acme Costume Company is connecting its manufacturing facilties to its stores with a small point- to-multipoint Frame Relay IP WAN. Little growth is expected in the network infrastructure.Up to this point the company has been using a dial-on-demand network. Dropping WAN costs, however, have led them to consider using a high-speed WAN solution to improve access. Which two routing protocols could you deploy to support the new larger network while keeping costs down? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
The VPN termination function provides the ability to connect two networks together securely over the internet. Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. termination devices need not routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
When dealing with transparent caching, where should the Content Engines be placed?
A. close to the servers
B. close to the end users
C. at the Internet edge
D. in front of web server farms
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Which of these statements is true of routing protocols in a hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN topology?
A. EIGRP can summarize per interface.
B. OSPF router databases remain independent.
C. When they are configured with stubs, EIGRP regularly floods the topology.
D. OSPF topology decisions are made independent of hierarchy or area.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three.)
A. dial plans
B. dialed numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode based on the following information?

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two.)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other.
Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirements of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
Note: The following URL from Cisco’s website explains this feature: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122cgcr/fqos_c/fqcprt6/qcflfi.htm #wp1000907 “(Optional) Configures a maximum fragment delay. If, for example, you want a voice stream to have a maximum bound on delay of 20 milliseconds (ms) and you specify 20 ms using this command, MLP will choose a fragment size based on the configured value.” Packets are fragmented when they exceed the configured maximum delay.
QUESTION 14
____ dBm is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)
A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No congestion avoidance, Duplicates and Out-of order delivery.
QUESTION 16
The Cisco IOS SLB feature is a Cisco IOS-based solution that provides server load balancing. This feature allows you to define a virtual server that represents a cluster of real servers, known as a server farm.
When a client initiates a connection to the virtual server, the IOS SLB load balances the connection to a chosen real server, depending on the configured load balance algorithm or predictor.
Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)
A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 18
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. You are designing an e-Commerce module, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. host security
B. perimeter security
C. security monitoring
D. policy management
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. InterSwitch Link
B. Virtua LAN
C. Virtual Output Queuing
D. virtual storage area network
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
A virtual storage area network (VSAN) is a collection of ports from a set of connected Fibre Channel switches, that form a virtual fabric. Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 24
What four functions does Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) incorporate? (Choose four.)
A. load balancing
B. scalability
C. remote management
D. fault tolerance
E. service assurance
Correct Answer: ABDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is the primary consideration to scale VPNs?
A. packets per second
B. number of remote sites
C. throughput bandwidth
D. number of tunnels
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 26
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 28
In which tunnel-less VPN topology do group members register with a key server in order to receive the security association necessary to communicate with the group?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
Which two of these are advantages of placing the VPN device in the DMZ on the firewall? (Choose two.)
A. fewer devices to manage
B. moderate-to-high scalability
C. stateful inspection of decrypted VPN traffic
D. increased bandwidth with additional interfaces
E. decreased complexity as traffic is filtered from the firewall
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
Under which two circumstances should Spanning Tree Protocol be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. when a VLAN spans access layer switches
D. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology
E. because of the risk of lost connectivity without Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which two of these are advantages of placing the VPN device parallel to the firewall? (Choose two.)
A. high scalability
B. the design supports a layered security model
C. firewall addressing does not need to change
D. IPsec decrypted traffic is inspected by the firewall
E. there is a centralized point for logging and content inspection
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
What will an Easy VPN hardware client require in order to insert its protected network address when it connects using network extension mode?
A. RADIUS or LDAP
B. an internal router running EIGRP
C. Reverse Route Injection and OSPF or RIPv2
D. the VPN appliance to be deployed in line with the firewall
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which two practices will avoid Cisco Express Forwarding polarization?(Choose two.)

A. The core layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
B. The core layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
C. The distribution layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
D. The distribution layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
E. The core layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input to the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm.
F. The distribution layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input into the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be considered in the network design?
A. RX-queue deferred
B. TX-queue deferred
C. RX-queue saturation
D. TX-queue saturation
E. RX-queue starvation
F. TX-queue starvation
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 35
What is the recommended practice when considering VPN termination and firewall placement?
A. have the firewall and VPN appliance deployed in parallel
B. place the VPN in line with the firewall, with the VPN terminating inside the firewall
C. place the public side of the VPN termination device in the DMZ behind a firewall
D. place the VPN in line with the firewall, with the VPN terminating outside the firewall
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
Which of these statements is correct regarding SSO and Cisco NSF?
A. Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
B. Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
C. Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices.
D. Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second.
E. NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
Which of these is a correct description of SSO?
A. It will only become active after a software failure.
B. It will only become active after a hardware failure.
C. It requires that Cisco NSF be enabled in order to work successfully.
D. It synchronizes the MAC, FIB, and adjacency tables between Active and Standby Route Processors.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
Which of these recommended designs provides the highest availability?
A. map the Layer 2 VLAN number to the Layer 3 subnet
B. control route propagation to edge switches using distribute lists
C. use a Layer 2 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP
D. use a Layer 3 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP
E. use equal-cost Layer 3 load balancing on all links to limit the scope of queries in EIGRP
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
An organization hires a contractor who only needs access to email and a group calendar. They do not need administrator access to the computer. Which VPN model is the most appropriate?
A. Thin Model
B. Thick Client
C. Port Forwarding
D. Clientless Access
E. Layer 3 Network Access
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)
A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 42
Which of these is a benefit of using Network Admission Control instead of Cisco Identity Based Networking Services?
A. NAC can authenticate using 802.1X and IBNS cannot
B. NAC can ensure only compliant machines connect and IBNS cannot
C. NAC can ensure access to the correct network resources and IBNS cannot
D. NAC can manage user mobility and reduce overhead costs and IBNS cannot
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 43
Which three of these Metro Ethernet services map to E-Line services that are defined by the MEF? (Choose three.)
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Wire Service
C. Ethernet Relay Service
D. Ethernet Multipoint Service
E. Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 44
Which two of these Metro Internet services map to E-LAN services that are defined by the MEF? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Wire Service
C. Ethernet Relay Service
D. Ethernet Multipoint Service
E. Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 45
Which two of these are characteristics of Metro Ethernet? (Choose two.)
A. class of service
B. bandwidth profiles
C. user-network interface
D. Ethernet LAN circuit attributes
E. Ethernet virtual circuit attributes
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 46
Which three of these are important when determining NAS Server scaling? (Choose three.)
A. interface bandwidth
B. rescan timer interval
C. total number of network devices
D. number of new user authentications per second
E. which operating system is loaded on the client
F. number of checks performed in a posture assessment
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 47
Which of these is true of a Layer 3 out-of-band NAS deployment?
A. The NAS acts as a gateway for all Layer 3 traffic.
B. Only the MAC address is used to identify the client device.
C. User traffic remains on the same VLAN for the duration of the connection.
D. After authentication and posture assessment, client traffic no longer passes through the NAS.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 48
Your MPLS implementation is currently using internal backdoor links. What can you do to minimize the impact of having these links?
A. use BGP as the CE-PE routing protocol
B. use OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol
C. use EIGRP as the CE-PE routing protocol
D. use the SP to redistribute routes as external routes for OSPF and EIGRP
E. use route redistribution at each location to ensure external routes are imported into the IGP
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 49
One of your customers wishes to use the NAS to perform DHCP functions and does not currently have a Layer 3 gateway in its production network. Which gateway mode is appropriate for this customer?
A. Virtual Gateway
B. Real-IP Gateway
C. NAT Gateway
D. IP-IP Gateway
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 50
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?
A. DTP
B. RPR
C. SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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