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QUESTION 85
Click the Exhibit button. In the shown scenario, the inside VIP address is translated by the firewall into the external ip address 172.16.1.10. The CSS interface E1 IP address is translated into 172.16.1.2. If you want to check the status of the CSS VIP from the GSS using a keepalive of type KAL-AP, what type of configuration would be needed?

A. KAL-AP by TAG with Shared KAL-AP of 172.16.1.2
B. KAL-AP by VIP with Shared KAL-AP of 10.10.10.10
C. KAL-AP by VIP with Shared KAL-AP of 172.16.1.10
D. KAL-AP by VIP with Shared KAL-AP of 172.16.1.2
E. KAP by TAG with Shared KAL-AP of 172.16.1.10

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which resource records are necessary to perform subzone delegation on a DNS server?
A. NS record and reverse record for the nameserver responsible for the subzone.
B. NS record and MX record for the nameserver responsible for the subzone.
C. MX record and A record for the nameserver responsible for the subzone.
D. NS record and A record for the nameserver responsible for the subzone.
E. NS record and SOA record for the nameserver responsible for the subzone.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Click the Exhibit button. In the shown diagram, for the content switch module, the default gateway of the web servers should be:

A. server vlan ip address 10.1.1.1
B. server vlan alias ip address 10.1.1.2
C. Interface vlan 10 ip address 10.1.1.10
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
What statement regarding an SSL transaction is NOT correct?
A. An SSL transaction begins with an SSL handshake where the client and server negotiate encrypted communication.
B. Both the TCP and IP headers are encrypted in order to prevent a third party from seeing the contents of the communication.
C. SSL can be used to encrypt different protocols including, HTTP, FTP, and Mail.
D. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is an application-level protocol that provides encryption technology for the Internet, ensuring secure transactions such as the transmission of credit card numbers for e-commerce Web sites.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
This is the CSS11000 configuration. www.foo.com resolves to the IP address 80.80.80.80 content rule1 protocol tcp vip address 80.80.80.80 port 80 url “/*” add service web3 add service web4 active content rule2 protocol tcp vip address 80.80.80.80 port 80 url “/question/*” add service web1 add service web2 active A web page is not returned from application on web servers web1 and web2. The URL the client is requesting (http://www.foo.com) resides on web1 and web2. What configuration change is required to return the correct page?
A. content rule1 url “//www.foo.com/*”
B. content rule2 url “//www.foo.com/question/*”
C. content rule1 url “//www.foo.com/picture/*”
D. content rule2 url “/picture/*”
E. content rule1E.content rule1 No url

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n Connection: Keep-Alive\r\n User-Agent: Mozilla/4.8 [en]C-CCK-MCD (Windows NT 5.0; U)\r\n Host: www.cisco.com\r\n Accept: image/gif, image/x-xbitmap, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, image/ png, */*\r\n Accept-Encoding: gzip\r\n Accept-Language: en\r\n Accept-Charset: iso-8859-1,*,utf-8\r\n In the above listed HTTP request, which lines are required (by RFC) for an HTTP 1.1 request?
A. “GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n” and “User-Agent: Mozilla/4.8 [en]C-CCK-MCD (Windows NT 5.0; U)\r\n”
B. “GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n”, “Host: www.cisco.com\r\n” and “Accept-Language: en\r\n”
C. “GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n”
D. “GET / HTTP/1.1\r\n” and “Host: www.cisco.com\r\n”
E. All lines are required

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
What is the WCCP Service Group number for Reverse Proxy?
A. 80
B. 90
C. 82
D. 99
E. 0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
Click the Exhibit button. In the shown diagram how does WCCP on the router decide which cache to send a request from the user?

A. It randomly selects a cache.
B. It uses the source address of the request and hashes to a cache.
C. It uses the destination address of the request and hashes to a cache.
D. It uses the source and destination address of the request and hashes to a cache.
E. It uses the source port of the request and hashes that to a cache.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. L3 switches R1 and R2 are in the backbone of the network. They are connected by a routed EtherChannel bundle consisting of eight Gigabit Ethernet ports. The routed link is represented as subnet X.0 in the diagram. Since X.0 is routed, it is not a VLAN trunk. How can spanning tree loops be prevented in the backbone of this network?

A. Since EtherChannel X is routed there are no spanning tree loops.
B. Configure seven of the eight ports in the bundle as passive interfaces
C. Configure UplinkFast on R1 and R2
D. Disable Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on R1 and R2
E. Disable VLAN X on seven of the eight ports in the bundle

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Please refer to the following line from a content engine transaction log. 1012429341.115 100
172.16.100.152 TCP_REFRESH_MISS/304 1100 GET http://www.cisco.com/images/homepage/news.gif -DIRECT/www.cisco.com Whats does the 304 mean in this log?
A. The complete content was retrieved from the origin server.
B. The complete content was served out of the cache.
C. An If-modified-since request was sent from the client and the complete content was sent back to the client.
D. An If-modified-since request was sent from the client and a not modified response code was sent back to the client.
E. 304 bytes of data was sent back to the client.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
How long is an ATM cell header?
A. 5 octets (bytes)
B. 3 octets (bytes)
C. 8 octets (bytes)
D. The size varies by AAL type used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
Click the Exhibit button. When loadbalancing TACACS+, the loadbalancer needs to: A. Loadbalance UDP traffic on port 1645, and TCP on port 49

B. Loadbalance TCP traffic on ports 1645 and 1812.
C. Be TACACS+-aware and loadbalance on TCP port 49.
D. Loadbalance TCP traffic on port 49.
E. Be TACACS+-aware and loadbalance on UDP traffic on port 49.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
How is it possible to allow servers to be directly accessed when they are being load balanced through the CSM in routed mode?
A. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s server side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and no nat client in the server farm.
B. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of the server and have a static route point to the CSM’s client side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and no nat server in the server farm.
C. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s server side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and nat client in the server farm.
D. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s client side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and nat client in the server farm.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router A?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 100
What is the difference between pre-positioned and pre-loaded content in an ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network?
A. Pre-loaded content is content that has been fetched by the root Content Engine and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-positioned content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
B. Pre-loaded content is content that has been fetched by the Content Distrubution Manager and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-positioned content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
C. Pre-positioned content is content that has been fetched by the root Content Engine and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-loaded content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
D. Both are exactly the same and do the same function.
E. Pre-positioned content is content that has been fetched by the Content Distrubution Manager and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-loaded content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which HTTP header attributes can CSG report for billing or accounting?
A. URL
B. Hostname
C. Can be configured to report any header value
D. Can be configured to report any header value from the client to the server
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
What describes a technique, used to encapsulate voice (NOT data) over ATM?
A. RFC 1483
B. LANE
C. AAL-1
D. RFC 1577

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
In HTTP 1.1 there is a CONNECT method defined in the RFC. What is the purpose of this method?
A. To allow a system administrator to manage the cache via HTTP or HTTPS
B. For a user’s browser to set up an HTTPS tunnel to proxy server
C. To allow transparent ftp redirection
D. For a user’s browser to set up an FTP tunnel to an origin server and tell an upstream proxy to tunnel the response
E. For a user’s browser to tell a proxy to connect to an origin server and tunnel the following communications to and from the user

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Click the Exhibit button to view the configuration. In the diagram shown, what mechanism needs to be employed on the remote site routers to aid congestion avoidance in the core, based on traffic priorities?

A. IP Precedence Tagging
B. Weighted Random Early Detection
C. Random Early Detection
D. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
What is the default port number is used by Cisco’s Content Engine Windows Media Server for streaming data via UDP?
A. 80
B. 1755
C. 8001
D. 554
E. 17
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Host D sends a frame to Host B at the same time that Host B sends a frame to Host D. Bridging is enabled on Router 1, and the two frames collide into each other. Select the best explanation of why Host B will or will not receive the original frame from Host D:

A. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same VLAN.
B. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same routing domain.
C. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same collision domain.
D. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in different broadcast domains.
E. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same bridging domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. In the shown diagram, the Cisco Cache Engines are configured in a reverse proxy fashion. On the CSS, for what type of service must the cache engines be configured?

A. Type transparent-cache
B. Type proxy-cache
C. Type local
D. Type redirect
E. No type needs to be specified

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. The diagram shows a campus with a L2 switched backbone.
The backbone has a single VLAN (= subnet) with no loops. The links into
the backbone are routed interfaces, not VLAN trunks. Switch X is the STP root of the core VLAN and
switch Y is the standby root. The connection between X and Y is an EtherChannel. The network architect
wants to add more redundancy by connecting the L3 switches in the distribution layer to both X and Y.
What best describes that plan?
A. It is a sound idea because it increases bandwidth and redundancy.
B. It is not sound financially because the extra links will be blocking.
C. It will cause loops that STP cannot resolve.
D. It is impossible because routers cannot have two interfaces on the same subnet.
E. It is a sound idea because packets take a single L2 hop across the backbone.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
To restrict SNMP access to a router, what configuration command could be used?
A. snmp-server community
B. snmp-server enable
C. snmp-server log
D. snmp-server host

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
To configure a CSS in box-to-box redundancy, the circuit VLAN that runs VRRP must have what command configured?
A. interface-redundant
B. redundant-circuit
C. redundancy-protocol
D. circuit-redundant
E. redundancy-interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
How does Transport Layer Security (TLS) differ from SSLv3?
A. TLS supports Diffie-Hellman ciphers and SSLv3 does not.
B. The way they derive keys from the master secret.
C. TLS supports client authentication and SSLv3 does not.
D. The way in which the Session ID is computed.
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
What is the best definition of the use of “Area 0” in OSPF?
A. Area 0 is used for administrative reasons, and is restricted from user definition.
B. Area 0 is defined as the backbone, designed to be at the center of all routing updates, and controls the dissemination of updates between areas.
C. Area 0 is used to authenticate messages received from other routers in the same area.
D. Area 0 is used for forwarding all routing updates received within the same Autonomous System from directly connected areas only.
E. Area 0 allows for routing updates to be forwarded between different Autonomous Systems.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router PE1?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
Click the Exhibit button. In the shown diagram, for the content switch module, the default gateway of the web servers should be:

A. server vlan ip address 10.1.1.1
B. server vlan alias ip address 10.1.1.2
C. Interface vlan 10 ip address 10.1.1.10
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115
A router is set to boot from flash, but cannot find boot commands in the configuration. Also, valid files do not exist in the default flash device. The router will:
A. Boot from ROM, since there are no valid sources
B. Try to boot from the network, using a default filename
C. Terminate the boot process with an error message
D. Try to boot from the network, then boot from ROM as a backup

Correct Answer: D

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