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QUESTION 76
Study the Topology Exhibit. Router Certkiller A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router Certkiller B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on Router Certkiller A to prevent workstation Certkiller 1 from overrunning the access port on Router Certkiller B? Exhibit:

A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 77
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the topology exhibit carefully. A network engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity problem between Hosts A and B. The following conditions exist: – Host Certkiller A can ping the firewall, but cannot ping Host Certkiller B.
-Host Certkiller B can ping both the firewall and www. Certkiller .com.

-The firewall can ping www. Certkiller .com.


Host Certkiller C can ping the firewall and www. Certkiller .com.

Host Certkiller A and Host Certkiller C have the same permissions on the firewall What is the most likely
problem?
Exhibit:
A.
Routing protocols in the network are not set up properly, and not propagating across the firewall.

B.
Host Certkiller A has an incorrect default gateway configured.

C.
Host Certkiller B has an incorrect default gateway configured.

D.
Host Certkiller C has an incorrect default gateway configured.

E.
The firewall has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
A. Alerting
B. Call Proceeding
C. Connect
D. USER Information
E. Progress

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the topology exhibit carefully. Routers Certkiller E
and Certkiller F are running HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). Router Certkiller E has a higher priority,
and both routers have standby preempt configured. Since Router Certkiller E is normally the active router,
what IP address should Host Certkiller G use for its default gateway?
Exhibit:
A. 10.1.3.1
B. Router Certkiller E’s IP address, since it is normally active; Router Certkiller F will take over Router
Certkiller E’s address if it fails.
C. Router Certkiller F’s IP address; the active router will take over the standby router’s IP address until it fails
D. The virtual address configured when enabling HSRP
E. The virtual address assigned by HSRP; this address is dependent on the group number configured

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
This is the CSS11000 configuration. www. Certkiller .com resolves to the IP address 80.80.80.80 content rule1 protocol tcp vip address 80.80.80.80 port 80 url “/*” add service web3 add service web4 active content rule2 protocol tcp vip address 80.80.80.80 port 80 url “/question/*” add service web1 add service web2 active A web page is not returned from application on web servers web1 and web2. The URL the client is requesting (http://www. Certkiller .com) resides on web1 and web2. What configuration change is required to return the correct page?
A. content rule1 url “//www. Certkiller .com/*”
B. content rule2 url “//www. Certkiller .com/question/*”
C. content rule1 url “//www. Certkiller .com/picture/*”
D. content rule2 url “/picture/*”
E. content rule1E.content rule1 No url

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
An inverse ARP is sent:
A. To map a hostname to an IP address
B. To map an IP address to a hostname
C. To map an MAC address to an IP address
D. To map a MAC address to a hostname
E. To map an IP address to a MAC address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
The web server of www. Certkiller .com has updated several images on its web page. However, the web page seen by the user still shows the old images. In a sniffer trace taken at the user PC, what message would confirm the observed problem?
A. HTTP HTTP/1.1 200 OK
B. TCP 80 > 1681 [FIN,ACK]
C. Date: Fri, 20 Oct 2000 11:48:52 GMT Last-Modified: Wed, 20 Oct 1999 15:41:49 GMT
D. Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Pragma: no-cache
E. Date: Fri, 20 Oct 2000 11:48:52 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 20 Oct 2000 11:48:52 GMT

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the topology exhibit carefully. According to the diagram, what attribute is initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give preference to the path A or D traffic will take
when going from AS200 to AS100? What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to the
path B or C traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?
Exhibit:
A. MED; Origin
B. MED; Local Preference
C. Community; Origin
D. Local Preference; MED
E. Origin; Community

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the shown diagram the USER is accessing the web application farm for content on port 80 through 7500-1. 7500-1 has WCCP enabled on the router. CE590 is pointing to 7500-1 as a WCCP router. What is the best method of redirection in this topology? Exhibit:

A. Route map on 7500-1; setting port 80 destined traffic’s next hop to 7500-2
B. Route map on 7500-1; setting port 80 destined traffic’s next hop to CE-590
C. GRE redirection
D. Layer 2 redirection
E. Layer 2 redirection with mask assign

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
What does CSG do to traffic that does not match a content rule?
A. Forwards, always
B. Drops, always
C. Forwards, when CSG is used in bridged mode, drops otherwise
D. Forwards, when CSG is used in routed mode, drops otherwise
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. Given the four networks listed, what valid summary address (below) contains the longest prefix? Exhibit:

A. 10.1.0.0/20
B. 10.1.0.0/16
C. 10.1.1.0/23
D. 10.1.16.0/19
E. These networks cannot be summarized.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
On the CSS, how would you configure a domain name content rule for www. Certkiller .com?
A. “www. Certkiller .com/*”
B. “/www. Certkiller .com/*”
C. url “//www. Certkiller .com/*”
D. url “/www. Certkiller .com/*”

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
To maintain schema-consistency in an LDAP Directory Information Tree (DIT), the LDAP standard specifies that:
A. The client first downloads the DIT schema from the server and then makes sure every request it sends conforms to the schema; The server therefore doesn’t have to check DIT for consistency
B. The operator periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and manually corrects any inconsistencies caused by clients
C. The server periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and sends a notification to the operator when it finds an inconsistency caused by clients
D. The server periodically converts the DIT to an SQL database; Schema-checking is done by the SQL engine and then the database is converted back to a DIT
E. The server checks every client operation for schema consistency, and ignores requests that would result in a DIT inconsistency
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
What signaling protocol does Cisco use to provide support for MPLS traffic engineering?
A. RSVP
B. LDP
C. SS7
D. TDP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the shown diagram, the Cisco Cache Engines are configured in a reverse proxy fashion. On the CSS, for what type of service must the cache engines be configured? Exhibit:

A. Type transparent-cache
B. Type proxy-cache
C. Type local
D. Type redirect
E. No type needs to be specified

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
You works as a technician at Certkiller . Study the topology exhibit carefully. In this network, Host A is trying to reach Host D. There is no routing protocol running, but Router B and C have the following static routes configured: Router B: ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 ethernet 1 Router C: ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 ethernet 1 Exhibit:

A. This will not work because Router B has no idea of how to forward traffic to the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
B. This will work because Router B will recognize that Router C is on the 10.1.2.0/24 network through a router discovery protocol and will forward traffic for 10.1.3.0/24 to Router C.
C. This will not work because a broadcast interface in a static route command cannot be specified.
D. This will work because Router B will ARP for Host D’s IP address on the 10.1.2.0/24 network and Router C will answer.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
A Fast Ethernet connection supporting multiple VLANs is referred to as:
A. A circuit group
B. An emulated LAN (LANE)
C. A trunk
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
What are the communication ports used by the GSS for inter-GSS communication?
A. UDP 2001-2009 and UDP 3001-3009
B. UDP 2001-2009 and TCP 2001-2009
C. UDP 3001-3009 and TCP 3001-3009
D. UDP 3001-3009 and TCP 2001-2009
E. TCP 2001-2009 and TCP 3001-3009

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 94
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. When loadbalancing
TACACS+, the loadbalancer needs to:
Exhibit:
A. Loadbalance UDP traffic on port 1645, and TCP on port 49
B. Loadbalance TCP traffic on ports 1645 and 1812.
C. Be TACACS+-aware and loadbalance on TCP port 49.
D. Loadbalance TCP traffic on port 49.
E. Be TACACS+-aware and loadbalance on UDP traffic on port 49.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
After OSPF is defined on a broadcast medium, the network administrator now wants a specific router to act as the Designated Router (DR) for a particular segment. What must the administrator do to ensure this always occurs?
A. Ensure the required router is the first to load, so it can assume the role of the Designated Router
B. Configure the required router with the highest IP address on this segment
C. Configure ip ospf priority on the interface, using a lower value than any other router on this segment
D. Configure ip ospf priority on the interface, using a higher value than any other router on this segment

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
How is it possible to allow servers to be directly accessed when they are being load balanced through the CSM in routed mode?
A. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s server side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and no nat client in the server farm.
B. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of the server and have a static route point to the CSM’s client side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and no nat server in the server farm.
C. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s server side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and nat client in the server farm.
D. Create a vserver with a virtual IP address of 0.0.0.0 and have a static route point to the CSM’s client side VLAN for traffic destined to the servers. Include predictor forward and nat client in the server farm.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
Routers running OSPF and sharing a common segment become neighbors on that segment. What statement regarding OSPF neighbors is FALSE?
A. The Primary and Secondary addresses on an interface allow the router to belong to different areas at the same time.
B. All routers must agree on the stub area flag in the OSPF Hello Packets.
C. Neighbors will fail to form an adjacency if their Hello and Dead intervals differ.
D. Two routers will not become neighbors if the Area-ID and Authentication password do not match.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Within a Content Delivery Network there are 3 ways to get a client to the closest Content Engine for delivery of Content. One way is using Simplified Hybrid Routing. The other 2 ways are:
A. Using WCCP on a router for transparent redirection or setting the proxy settings in a browser point to the closest Content Engine.
B. Using WCCP on a router for transparent redirection or using DNS to resolve to the correct Content Engine.
C. Using DNS to direct the request to a content router and using a HTTP redirect to have the client go directly to the Content Engine.
D. Using a Coverage Zone file on the client and then using an HTTP redirect to have the client redirect to the closest Content Engine.
E. Setting up proxy settings in a browser pointing to the closest CE or using DNS to provide the IP address of the closest CE.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
What ISDN timer is started after Q.931 SETUP msg is sent?
A. T301
B. T303
C. T302
D. T310
E. T305

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
What statement regarding Network Qualifier Lists (NQL) is most correct?
A. It is used to define a list of IP addresses and networks to simplify and enhance the implementation of ACLs.
B. It is used to define a list of IP addresses to simplify and enhance the implementation of advanced balanced sticky source IP.
C. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of hosts allowed SNMP access to a Content Smart Switch.
D. It is used to define a list of IP addresses of FTP servers.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
What is Forwarding Equivalence Class assignment NOT likely to be based upon?
A. Fragment offset
B. Destination address
C. Application protocol
D. Class of service

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
For communications systems what describes the over-all health of the system?
A. Bit-Error-Rate (BER)
B. Synchronous Optical NETwork (SONET)
C. Optical Signal to Noise Ratio (OSNR)
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
In MPLS what is an LSP?
A. Label Selection Pair
B. Label Switched Path
C. Lightweight Signaling Protocol
D. Large Sampling Path
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
CIDR is primarily used:
A. In BGP only
B. For classless routing
C. In OSPF only
D. In EIGRP only

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
What type of fiber-optic system is used to distribute cable television signals?
A. Point to multipoint
B. Local Area network
C. Switched
D. Point to point

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. Upon deleting an IOS
image file from flash, an execution of show flash shows the file still in flash, with a ‘D’ preceding it (as
shown in the exhibit). What step must be taken in order to remove the file completely?
Exhibit:
A. Erase the file from flash
B. Format the flash device
C. Replace the flash card – it is defective
D. Execute a squeeze command on the flash device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
What does NOT contribute to lowered throughput in practical IP over ATM networks?
A. ILMI overhead
B. SAR delay
C. Cell tax
D. Cell padding

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
The TCP PUSH flag indicates:
A. The data in the TCP receive buffer should be sent to the application listening to this TCP connection without waiting for further data.
B. Any data being buffered by routers between the source and destination for this connection should be sent immediately.
C. The sender should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
D. This session is about to end

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
What is the difference between pre-positioned and pre-loaded content in an ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network?
A. Pre-loaded content is content that has been fetched by the root Content Engine and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-positioned content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
B. Pre-loaded content is content that has been fetched by the Content Distrubution Manager and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-positioned content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
C. Pre-positioned content is content that has been fetched by the root Content Engine and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-loaded content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.
D. Both are exactly the same and do the same function.
E. Pre-positioned content is content that has been fetched by the Content Distrubution Manager and distributed to all the Content Engines. Pre-loaded content is content that all Content Engines fetch independently from an origin server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
What is the WCCP Service Group number for Reverse Proxy?
A. 80
B. 90
C. 82
D. 99
E. 0

Correct Answer: D

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